Union Legislature – NDA Polity PYQs

NDA 2026-I

Q. 1. Consider the following statements:

I.  A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Rajya Sabha

II.  The Rajya Sabha has no power to reject a Money Bill but can suggest amendment(s)

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  I only

(b)  II only

(c)  Both I and II

(d)  Neither I nor II

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Explanation: Statement I is correct. A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, not in the Rajya Sabha. Statement II is correct. The Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Money Bill. It can only return it with or without recommendations within 14 days. Both statements accurately describe the constitutional position on Money Bills under Articles 109 and 110. Concept Tested: Money Bill: introduced only in Lok Sabha; Rajya Sabha can recommend but not reject

Q. 2. Consider the following statements:

I.  The Constitution of India mentions that the Speaker has the power to adjourn both the Houses sine die

II.  On prorogation, it is only the Speaker who can summon the Houses

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  I only

(b)  II only

(c)  Both I and II

(d)  Neither I nor II

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

Explanation: Statement I is incorrect. The Speaker presides over and can adjourn the Lok Sabha: not both Houses. The Constitution does not give the Speaker power to adjourn the Rajya Sabha or to adjourn both Houses sine die. Statement II is incorrect. After prorogation, the power to summon Parliament belongs exclusively to the President of India: not the Speaker. The Speaker adjourns the Lok Sabha; the President summons and prorogues Parliament. Both statements are constitutionally inaccurate. Concept Tested: Speaker’s powers and limitations: adjourn Lok Sabha only; President summons Parliament after prorogation

★ JOVIK Exam Insight: The Speaker’s authority is confined to the Lok Sabha. Summoning Parliament after prorogation is the President’s exclusive power. NDA 2026-I tested two false propositions about the Speaker at the same time. Correct position: the Speaker adjourns the Lok Sabha; the President summons Parliament.

NDA 2025-I

Q. 3. Which one of the following statements about the Parliament of India is correct?

(a)  A majority of members of Rajya Sabha are elected by a system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote

(b)  The Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha is nominated by the President from among the members of the Rajya Sabha

(c)  The Lok Sabha cannot be dissolved before the completion of its five-year term

(d)  The members of the Lok Sabha also vote in the election of the members of the Rajya Sabha

Answer: (a) A majority of members of Rajya Sabha are elected by a system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote

Explanation: Option (a) is correct. Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of State Legislative Assemblies (MLAs) through proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. Option (b) is incorrect. The Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha is elected by the members of the Rajya Sabha from among themselves, not nominated by the President. Option (c) is incorrect. The Lok Sabha can be dissolved before the completion of its five-year term by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. Option (d) is incorrect. Members of the Lok Sabha do not vote in the election of Rajya Sabha members. Rajya Sabha members are elected by State MLAs. Concept Tested: Rajya Sabha election: by State MLAs through PR/STV; Deputy Chairman elected, not nominated; Lok Sabha can be dissolved early

★ JOVIK Exam Insight: Two common misconceptions tested here: the Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha is elected (not nominated by President); and Lok Sabha members do not vote for Rajya Sabha seats.

NDA 2024-II

Q. 4. Which of the following Committees does NOT consist of Members from the Upper House of the Parliament?

1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings

(a)  1 and 2

(b)  1 and 3

(c)  2 only

(d)  3 only

Answer: (c) 2 only

Explanation: The Estimates Committee consists exclusively of members of the Lok Sabha: no Rajya Sabha members. The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) draws members from both Houses: 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha. The Committee on Public Undertakings also draws members from both Houses: 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha. Of the three committees listed, only the Estimates Committee does not include Rajya Sabha members. Concept Tested: Estimates Committee: consists exclusively of Lok Sabha members; PAC and CPU include both Houses

★ JOVIK Exam Insight: The Estimates Committee’s Lok Sabha-only composition reflects the constitutional principle that financial estimates are primarily the domain of the directly elected House.

Q. 5. In the passing of a Money Bill, the Rajya Sabha has limited powers in that it shall return the Bill, with or without any recommendation, within the stipulated time of

(a)  12 days

(b)  21 days

(c)  14 days

(d)  30 days

Answer: (c) 14 days

Explanation: The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days of its receipt: with or without recommendations. The Lok Sabha may accept or reject any or all of the Rajya Sabha’s recommendations. If the Rajya Sabha fails to return the Bill within 14 days, the Bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses. The Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Money Bill. Its role is purely advisory. Concept Tested: Money Bill: 14-day return period for Rajya Sabha; Rajya Sabha cannot reject

NDA 2022-I

Q. 6. The Parliament of India is primarily based on the model of

(a)  German Parliament

(b)  British Parliament

(c)  American Congress

(d)  French Parliament

Answer: (b)  British Parliament

Explanation: The Parliament of India is primarily modelled on the British Parliament (the Westminster system). The Indian constitutional framework: parliamentary government, the role of the Prime Minister, the Cabinet system, collective responsibility, the Speaker’s position, and the legislative procedure: all derive from the British model. Concept Tested: Parliament of India: primarily modelled on the British Parliament (Westminster system)

Q. 7. The elections to the Lower House of the Parliament of India, held in 2019, constituted the

(a)  14th Lok Sabha

(b)  15th Lok Sabha

(c)  16th Lok Sabha

(d)  17th Lok Sabha

Answer: (d)  17th Lok Sabha

Explanation: The general elections of 2019 constituted the 17th Lok Sabha. Lok Sabha numbering begins from the 1st Lok Sabha in 1952. The count of 17 by 2019 is sequential and verifiable. Concept Tested: Lok Sabha numbering: 2019 elections constituted the 17th Lok Sabha

NDA 2021-I

Q. 8. Which one of the following is not a power of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

(a)  Speaker shall preside over the House of the People

(b)  Speaker will cast vote in the first instance in the House

(c)  Speaker will have power to maintain order within the House of the People

(d)  Speaker can adjourn the House or suspend the meeting till there is a quorum

Answer: (b)  Speaker will cast vote in the first instance in the House

Explanation: Options (a), (c), and (d) are all genuine powers of the Speaker: presiding over the Lok Sabha, maintaining order, and adjourning the House when there is no quorum. Option (b) is NOT a power of the Speaker. The Speaker does not vote in the first instance: the Speaker has only a casting vote, exercised only when there is a tie. This limitation is fundamental to the Speaker’s role as a neutral presiding officer who must not appear to take sides in ordinary voting. Concept Tested: Speaker’s casting vote: Speaker does not vote in first instance; voting only to break a tie

★ JOVIK Exam Insight: Casting vote = used only on a tie. The Speaker withholds from ordinary voting to maintain neutrality.

NDA 2020-I/II

Q. 9. According to Article 79 of the Constitution of India, which of the following is/are described as a part of Parliament of India?

1. The House of the People
2. The Council of States
3. The President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)  1 only

(b)  1 and 2 only

(c)  2 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Article 79 of the Constitution states: ‘There shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall consist of the President and two Houses to be known respectively as the Council of States and the House of the People.’ All three- the House of the People (Lok Sabha), the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), and the President- are constitutional parts of Parliament. The President is part of Parliament despite not sitting in either House. Presidential assent is required for every Bill to become law. Concept Tested: Article 79: constitutional composition of Parliament: President + Lok Sabha + Rajya Sabha

NDA 2019-I

Q. 10. Which one of the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha is NOT correct?

(a)  Its members are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of a State

(b)  The election follows the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote

(c)  1/3rd of its members retires after every two years

(d)  It is a permanent body, but can be dissolved earlier by the President

Answer: (d) It is a permanent body, but can be dissolved earlier by the President

Explanation: Options (a), (b), and (c) are all correct descriptions of the Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha members are elected by the elected members of State Legislative Assemblies (MLAs): not by the general electorate. The election uses proportional representation by single transferable vote. One-third of members retire every two years, with each member serving a 6-year term. Option (d) is NOT correct. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and CANNOT be dissolved: not even by the President. There are no circumstances under which the Rajya Sabha can be dissolved. Concept Tested: Rajya Sabha: permanent body; cannot be dissolved by the President under any circumstances

★ JOVIK Exam Insight: The Rajya Sabha’s permanence is absolute. Only the Lok Sabha can be dissolved: by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. The phrase ‘can be dissolved earlier’ is the exact false element in option (d). The Rajya Sabha’s dissolution is constitutionally impossible.

NDA 2018-I

Q. 11. Which one of the following about the Parliament of India is NOT correct?

(a)  The Parliament consists of the President, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha

(b)  There are no nominated members in the Lok Sabha

(c)  The Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved

(d)  Some members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President

Answer: (b) There are no nominated members in the Lok Sabha

Explanation: This question was asked in 2018, when the Lok Sabha still had two nominated Anglo-Indian members. At that time, the statement ‘there are no nominated members in the Lok Sabha’ was NOT correct. Option (a) is correct: Article 79 defines Parliament as consisting of the President, the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha. Option (c) is correct: the Rajya Sabha is a permanent body that cannot be dissolved. Option (d) is correct: the President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha for expertise in art, science, literature, and social service. Note: The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act (2020) later abolished nominated Anglo-Indian members from Lok Sabha. After 2020, the Lok Sabha has no nominated members. Concept Tested: Composition of Parliament: Article 79; nominated members in Lok Sabha (as of 2018 NDA question)

★ JOVIK Exam Insight: The 104th Amendment (2020) abolished Anglo-Indian nominated seats in the Lok Sabha. Before 2020, two seats were reserved. The Rajya Sabha still retains 12 nominated members appointed by the President for their expertise.

NDA 2016-II

Q. 12. Consider the following statements about the Constitution of India:

1.  A Member of Parliament enjoys freedom of speech in the Parliament as a Parliamentary Privilege protected by the Constitution of India.

2.  The Constitution has vested the power to amend the Constitution in the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)  Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Article 105 guarantees freedom of speech in Parliament as a parliamentary privilege. No member of Parliament is liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given in Parliament. Statement 2 is correct. Article 368 vests the power to amend the Constitution in Parliament, though the amendment requires a special majority and, in some cases, ratification by State Legislatures. Both statements are correct constitutional facts. Concept Tested: Parliamentary privilege of freedom of speech (Article 105) and Parliament’s power to amend (Article 368)

Q. 13. Which one of the following statements about Money Bill is correct?

(a)  A Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill only if it provides for imposition of fines or penalties

(b)  A Money Bill shall be introduced in the Rajya Sabha

(c)  The Rajya Sabha can reject the Money Bill

(d)  The Speaker of the Lok Sabha finally decides if it is a Money Bill, should any dispute about it arise

Answer: (d) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha finally decides if it is a Money Bill, should any dispute about it arise

Explanation: Option (d) is correct. Article 109(1) provides that if any question arises whether a Bill is or is not a Money Bill, the decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha on it shall be final. Option (a) is incorrect. Fines and penalties may appear in any Bill. A Money Bill is defined under Article 110 by its content relating to taxation, public revenue, and expenditure matters: not by penalties. Option (b) is incorrect. A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha: not in the Rajya Sabha. Option (c) is incorrect. The Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Money Bill. It can only return it with or without recommendations within 14 days. Concept Tested: Money Bill: Speaker’s final certification; cannot be introduced in Rajya Sabha; Rajya Sabha cannot reject

★ JOVIK Exam Insight: The Speaker’s Money Bill certification is final: no court or other authority can override it. This makes the Speaker’s role on Money Bills constitutionally decisive.

NDA 2016-I

Q. 14. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may resign his office by writing, addressed to the

(a)  President of India

(b)  Prime Minister of India

(c)  Vice President of India

(d)  Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Answer: (d) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Explanation: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha resigns by writing to the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha. This is the same constitutional provision as tested in NDA 2009-II. The President, Prime Minister, and Vice President have no role in the Speaker’s resignation. Concept Tested: Speaker’s resignation: addressed to the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

NDA 2014-II

Q. 15. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a)  The Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha is elected every year

(b)  The Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha is elected for a term of 5 years

(c)  The Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha is elected for a term of 6 years

(d)  The Vice President of India is the Ex Officio Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha

Answer: (d) The Vice President of India is the Ex Officio Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha

Explanation: The Vice President of India is the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha; this position is automatic, not elected. The options about being elected every year, for 5 years, or for 6 years are all incorrect. The Presiding Officer (Vice President) does not face election to this role; it follows from the Vice Presidency. The Vice President is elected for a 5-year term, but that election is to the Vice Presidency: not to the Chairmanship of the Rajya Sabha, which is a consequential role. Concept Tested: Vice President as ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha: not elected separately to this role

Q. 16. Joint sittings of the two Houses of Indian Parliament are held to

(a)  elect the President of India

(b)  elect the Vice President of India

(c)  adopt a Constitution Amendment Bill

(d)  consider and pass a Bill on which the two Houses disagree

Answer: (d) consider and pass a Bill on which the two Houses disagree

Explanation: Joint sittings under Article 108 are held to resolve deadlocks on ordinary Bills: when the two Houses disagree. The President and Vice President are not elected in joint sittings. An Electoral College elects them through a separate process. Constitution Amendment Bills cannot be passed in a joint sitting. Each House must independently pass them by a special majority. Concept Tested: Purpose of joint sittings: resolving ordinary Bill deadlocks; not for constitutional amendments or Presidential elections

★ JOVIK Exam Insight: Joint sittings apply to Ordinary Bills only. Constitution Amendment Bills, Money Bills, and the President/VP elections are all outside the joint sitting mechanism.

NDA 2013-I

Q. 17. Joint Parliamentary Sessions in India are chaired by the

(a)  President of India

(b)  Vice-President of India who is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

(c)  Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(d)  Prime Minister of India

Answer: (c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Explanation: Joint sittings of both Houses of Parliament are presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. The Vice President, as Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, presides over ordinary Rajya Sabha sittings. The Vice President has no role in joint sittings. Joint sittings are convened by the President (via summons) but presided over by the Speaker. Concept Tested: Joint sitting: presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, not the Vice President

NDA 2012-II

Q. 18. Normally the Parliament can legislate on the subjects enumerated in

(a)  the Union List

(b)  the Concurrent List

(c)  the State List

(d)  the Union as well as Concurrent List

Answer: (d) the Union as well as Concurrent List

Explanation: Parliament of India has normal legislative competence over the Union List (List I, Seventh Schedule) and the Concurrent List (List III, Seventh Schedule). States have exclusive legislative power over the State List (List II) in ordinary circumstances. Parliament can legislate on State List subjects only in exceptional circumstances: such as under Article 249 (Rajya Sabha resolution), during National Emergency (Article 250), or under Article 252 (State consent). Concept Tested: Parliament’s normal legislative competence: Union List and Concurrent List; not the State List

Q. 19. Who among the following has a right to speak and otherwise take part in proceedings of either House of Parliament and to be a member of any parliamentary committee but is not entitled to vote?

(a)  Chairman, Finance Commission

(b)  The Attorney General

(c)  The Comptroller and Auditor General

(d)  The Chief Election Commissioner

Answer: (b) The Attorney General

Explanation: The Attorney General of India has the right to speak and otherwise take part in the proceedings of either House of Parliament and to be a member of any parliamentary committee: but is not entitled to vote. This right flows from Article 76(4) of the Constitution. The Attorney General is the government’s chief law officer and, in that capacity, has advisory access to both Houses. The Finance Commission Chairman, the Comptroller and Auditor General, and the Chief Election Commissioner have no such right to participate in parliamentary proceedings. Concept Tested: Attorney General of India: Article 76(4): participates in Parliament but cannot vote

★ JOVIK Exam Insight: The Attorney General participates in Parliament as the government’s legal adviser: not as an elected member. This is one of the few non-member officers with constitutional parliamentary access.

NDA 2012-I

Q. 20. The Parliament can legislate on the subjects in the State List if the

(a)  President issues an order authorizing it to do so

(b)  Supreme Court gives authority to the Parliament in this regard

(c)  Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds of its members present and voting, declaring it expedient to legislate on a State matter in the national interest

(d)  Prime Minister issues a special order

Answer: (c) Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds of its members present and voting, declaring it expedient to legislate on a State matter in the national interest

Explanation: Under Article 249, the Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution by a two-thirds majority of its members present and voting, declaring it expedient in the national interest for Parliament to legislate on a State List subject. Once such a resolution is passed, Parliament can make laws on that State List subject for one year (extendable by further resolution). Neither the President nor the Prime Minister has unilateral power to authorise Parliament to legislate on State subjects. The mechanism is a resolution of the Rajya Sabha: a federal safeguard. Concept Tested: Article 249: Rajya Sabha’s power to authorise Parliament to legislate on State List subjects

Q. 21. During the discussion on the Demands for Grants, motions can be moved to reduce the amount of a demand. Such a motion is called a ‘cut-motion’. Which of the following categories are classified as ‘cut-motion’?

1.  Disapproval of policy cut

2.  Economy cut

3.  Token cut

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)  1 and 2 only

(b)  2 and 3 only

(c)  1, 2 and 3

(d)  1 and 3 only

Answer: (c)  1, 2 and 3

Explanation: All three are recognised types of cut motion used during discussion on Demands for Grants. The Disapproval of Policy Cut expresses disapproval of the policy underlying a demand: the amount is reduced to Re. 1. The Economy Cut reduces the expenditure by a specified amount to achieve economy in public spending. The Token Cut reduces the demand by Rs. 100 to draw attention to a specific grievance. Concept Tested: Three types of cut motion: Disapproval of Policy Cut, Economy Cut, Token Cut

NDA 2011-I

Q. 22. When an Ordinary Bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of Indian Parliament, it has to be passed by a:

(a)  simple majority of the total number of members of both the Houses present and voting

(b)  two-third majority of the total number of members of both the Houses

(c)  simple majority of the total number of members of both the Houses

(d)  two-third majority of the total number of members of both the Houses present and voting

Answer: (a)  simple majority of the total number of members of both the Houses present and voting

Explanation: At a joint sitting under Article 108, an Ordinary Bill is deemed passed if it is passed by a simple majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting. A simple majority: more than half of those present and voting: is the threshold. Not two-thirds. The phrase ‘present and voting’ is constitutionally precise. The majority is of those present, not of the total membership of both Houses. Concept Tested: Joint sitting: voting threshold: simple majority of members present and voting

★ JOVIK Exam Insight: A two-thirds majority applies to Constitution Amendment Bills and Article 249 (Rajya Sabha national interest resolution), not to joint sittings. At joint sittings, the larger Lok Sabha membership typically ensures the government’s preferred outcome.

Q. 23. In which among the following cases the joint session of both the Houses of Parliament can be summoned?

1.  To amend the Constitution.

2.  When a bill has been pending with one House for more than six months after it was passed by the other.

3.  When both the Houses disagree on the amendments to be made in a bill.

4.  When a bill is passed by one House and is rejected by the other.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)  1, 2 and 3

(b)  2, 3 and 4

(c)  2 and 3 only

(d)  1 and 4

Answer: (b)  2, 3 and 4

Explanation: A joint sitting under Article 108 can be summoned in three situations: when a Bill is rejected by one House; when the Houses disagree on amendments; or when more than six months pass without action by one House. Statement 1 is incorrect. A Constitution Amendment Bill cannot be resolved by joint sitting. Each House must independently pass the amendment by a special majority. If they disagree, there is no joint sitting mechanism: the amendment fails. Statements 2, 3, and 4 describe the three recognised grounds for a joint sitting under Article 108. Concept Tested: Joint sitting triggers under Article 108: three grounds; Constitution Amendment Bills excluded

★ JOVIK Exam Insight: Constitution Amendment Bills, Money Bills, and Financial Bills (Category II) cannot be resolved by joint sittings. A joint sitting applies only to Ordinary Bills stuck in a deadlock between the two Houses.

NDA 2010-II

Q. 24. The Government Bill means a bill introduced by a:

(a)  Member of the Treasury bench in the Lok Sabha

(b)  Member of the Parliament who is not a Minister

(c)  Minister in the Lok Sabha

(d)  Minister in any House of the Parliament

Answer: (d) Minister in any House of the Parliament

Explanation: A Government Bill is a Bill introduced by a Minister, whether in the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. The defining criterion is who introduces it: a Minister (member of the executive) rather than a non-Minister Member of Parliament. A Private Member Bill, by contrast, is introduced by any MP who is not a Minister. Option (c) is too narrow: a Government Bill can originate in either House, not only the Lok Sabha. Concept Tested: Government Bill: definition by introducer (Minister), not by the House of introduction

NDA 2009-II

Q. 25. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can resign his office by addressing his resignation to

(a)  the President

(b)  the Prime Minister

(c)  the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(d)  the Chief Justice of India

Answer: (c) the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Explanation: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha resigns by writing a letter addressed to the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha. This is specifically provided in the Constitution. The resignation goes to the Deputy Speaker: not to the President, the Prime Minister, or any court. The same principle applies in reverse: the Deputy Speaker resigns by writing to the Speaker. Concept Tested: Speaker of the Lok Sabha: resignation procedure under the Constitution

★ JOVIK Exam Insight: This fact has been tested twice: NDA 2009-II and NDA 2016-I. The President is the most common wrong answer. The President removes the Speaker (via a resolution of the Lok Sabha). The Speaker resigns to the Deputy Speaker. These are two different constitutional processes.

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