Salient Features of Indian Constitution – NDA Polity PYQs

NDA 2026-I

Q. 1. Consider the following pairs with reference to the Constitution of India:

I.	Part IX-A	The Municipalities
II.	Part IX-B	The Cooperative Societies
III.	Part X	Relations between the Union and States
IV.	Part XII	Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a)  One

(b)  Two

(c)  Three

(d)  All four

Answer: (c)  Three

Explanation: Pair I: Part IX-A: The Municipalities. Correct. Part IX-A was inserted by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992. Pair II: Part IX-B: The Cooperative Societies. Correct. Part IX-B was inserted by the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011. Pair III: Part X: Relations between the Union and States. Incorrect. Part X deals with Scheduled and Tribal Areas. Relations between the Union and States fall under Part XI. Pair IV: Part XII: Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits. Correct. Three pairs (I, II, IV) are correctly matched. Pair III is wrong. The answer is (c). Concept Tested: Subject matter of Parts IX-A, IX-B, X, and XII of the Constitution

★ JOVIK Exam Insight: Part X is the confusing part in this question. Part X covers Scheduled and Tribal Areas: not Union-State relations. Union-State relations are covered under Part XI. This distinction was directly tested in NDA 2026-I. NDA 2026-I introduced Part-number questions for this chapter. Structural knowledge of the Constitution’s Parts is now a tested area.

NDA 2021-II

Q. 2. Which one of the following is not a function of the Constitution of India?

(a)  To ensure participation of good people in politics

(b)  To guarantee a set of rights to citizens

(c)  To define the power of the different organs of government

(d)  To create conditions for a just society

Answer: (a)  To ensure participation of good people in politics

Explanation: The Constitution performs several functions. It guarantees rights to citizens. It defines the powers of the Legislature, the Executive, and the Judiciary. It creates conditions for building a just society. What the Constitution cannot do is guarantee the moral quality of political actors. It sets up rules for the system. It cannot ensure that only good people participate in politics. Option (a) is not a function of the Constitution. It is the correct answer. Concept Tested: Functions of the Constitution: what it does versus what it cannot do

Q. 3. Which one of the following is not a feature of the Constitution of India?

(a)  It provides a set of basic rules.

(b)  It specifies the power of the Government.

(c)  It is the supreme law of the land.

(d)  It specifies the supremacy of the judiciary.

Answer: (d)  It specifies the supremacy of the judiciary.

Explanation: Options (a), (b), and (c) are genuine features of the Constitution. It provides basic rules. It specifies government powers. It is the supreme law of the land. Option (d) is incorrect. The Constitution establishes constitutional supremacy, not judicial supremacy. The judiciary interprets the Constitution and strikes down inconsistent laws. But this power comes from the Constitution. The Supreme Court acts under the Constitution’s authority: it is not above it. The Constitution is supreme. The judiciary is its guardian, not its superior. Concept Tested: Constitutional supremacy versus judicial supremacy

★ JOVIK Exam Insight: NDA 2021-II asked two negation questions from the same paper: Q. 4 on functions and Q. 5 on features. Both test the same skill: identifying what the Constitution does NOT do and what is NOT a feature. Key point: the Constitution is supreme. The Court enforces it but is not above it.

NDA 2018-I

Q. 4. Which of the following provision(s) of the Constitution of India became effective from 26th November 1949?

1.  Elections

2.  Citizenship

3.  Emergency provisions

4.  Appointment of the Judges

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)  1 only

(b)  1 and 2 only

(c)  1, 2 and 3

(d)  2 and 4

Answer: (d)  2 and 4

Explanation: The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution on 26 November 1949. Only certain provisions came into force on that date. Citizenship and elections provisions came into force on 26 November 1949. Provisions relating to the appointment of judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts also became operative on that date. Emergency provisions came into force on 26 January 1950, along with the remaining provisions of the Constitution. Statements 2 (Citizenship) and 4 (Appointment of the Judges) are correct. The answer is (d). Concept Tested: Provisions that came into force on 26 November 1949 versus 26 January 1950

★ JOVIK Exam Insight: 26 November 1949 = adoption date: citizenship, elections, and appointment of judges provisions came into force. 26 January 1950 = commencement date: Emergency provisions and all remaining provisions came into force. Emergency provisions did NOT begin on 26 November. This is the most commonly confused point in this question.

NDA 2015-I

Q. 5. Which among the following is not a basic feature of the Constitution of India?

(a)  Fundamental rights

(b)  Independence of judiciary

(c)  Federalism

(d)  The unquestioned right of the Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution

Answer: (d)  The unquestioned right of the Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution

Explanation: Fundamental Rights, independence of the judiciary, and federalism are all confirmed basic features of the Indian Constitution. Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution under Article 368. But this power is not unquestioned. In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court held that Parliament cannot alter the basic structure of the Constitution. Parliament’s amending power has limits. An unquestioned right to amend any part does not exist. Option (d) is the correct answer. Concept Tested: Basic features of the Constitution: confirmed features versus Parliament’s limited amendment power

★ JOVIK Exam Insight: This is a negation question: NDA asks which option is NOT a basic feature. Fundamental Rights, judicial independence, and federalism are all IN. Unlimited amendment power is OUT: the Basic Structure Doctrine prevents it. Remember: Kesavananda Bharati (1973) limits Parliament’s power under Article 368.

NDA 2010-I

Q. 6. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Constitution of India is a liberal Constitution.

Statement II: It provides Fundamental Rights to individuals.

(a)  Both statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

(b)  Both statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

(c)  Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(d)  Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Answer: (b)  Both statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation: Statement I is true. The Constitution of India is a liberal Constitution. Statement II is also true. The Constitution does grant Fundamental Rights to individuals. However, Statement II does not correctly explain Statement I. A liberal constitution is defined by its entire value framework: rule of law, limited government, and protection of individual freedom. Fundamental Rights are evidence of that liberalism: not its complete cause. Both statements are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. Concept Tested: Liberal character of the Constitution: Fundamental Rights as evidence, not sole cause

★ JOVIK Exam Insight: The Statement I / Statement II format tests whether students understand the difference between a fact and its correct explanation. Here, both statements are true, but Statement II gives an incomplete reason. The liberal character of the Constitution rests on a broader value framework, not on Fundamental Rights alone.

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