British Acts and Constitutional Development – NDA History PYQs

NDA 2026-I

Q. 1. Consider the following statements about the Rowlatt Act, 1919:

1. Gandhiji launched nationwide Satyagraha against proposed Rowlatt Act, 1919

2. The Act was hurriedly passed through Imperial Legislative Council despite opposition of Indian members

3. The Act gave the Government enormous powers to repress political activities

(a) I only

(b) III only

(c) I and II only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Explanation: Gandhi did launch a nationwide Satyagraha against this proposed Act. It was indeed pushed through despite Indian members’ clear opposition. It did grant the government sweeping powers to repress political activity. All three statements about the Rowlatt Act are correct together. Concept Tested: Nature and passage of the Rowlatt Act, 1919

NDA 2025-II

Q. 2. Which of the following Acts established the Board of Control to guide and control the work of the Court of Directors and the Government of India?

(a) Regulating Act of 1773

(b) Pitt’s India Act of 1784

(c) Charter Act of 1793

(d) Charter Act of 1813

Answer: (b) Pitt’s India Act of 1784

Explanation: Pitt’s India Act established the Board of Control in 1784. It oversaw the Court of Directors and the Company’s Indian administration. The other Acts listed addressed separate constitutional matters. So option (b) Pitt’s India Act of 1784 is the correct answer. Concept Tested: Act that established the Board of Control

NDA 2025-I

Q. 3. In British India, which one among the following Acts permitted detention without trial for up to two years?

(a) Regulating Act, 1773

(b) Rowlatt Act, 1919

(c) Pitt’s India Act, 1784

(d) Government of India Act, 1935

Answer: (b) Rowlatt Act, 1919

Explanation: The Rowlatt Act allowed detention without trial for up to two years. It bypassed ordinary judicial safeguards for suspected political activity. The other Acts listed addressed separate administrative matters. So option (b) Rowlatt Act, 1919 is the correct answer. Concept Tested: Act permitting extended detention without trial

NDA 2025-I

Q. 4. Which among the following Acts provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court of Justice at Calcutta for Europeans, their employees and the citizens of India?

(a) The Regulating Act of 1773

(b) The Charter Act of 1793

(c) The Charter Act of 1813

(d) Government of India Act of 1858

Answer: (a) The Regulating Act of 1773

Explanation: The Regulating Act of 1773 established the Calcutta Supreme Court. It extended jurisdiction over Europeans and Indian residents alike. The later Acts listed addressed separate constitutional matters. So option (a) The Regulating Act of 1773 is the correct answer. Concept Tested: Act that established the Supreme Court at Calcutta

NDA 2025-I

Q. 5. Who, among the following, has introduced a resolution in 1882 which is also called the Magna Carta of Local Self-Government in India?

(a) Lord Macaulay

(b) Lord Canning

(c) Lord Ripon

(d) Lord William Bentinck

Answer: (c) Lord Ripon

Explanation: Lord Ripon introduced this 1882 resolution on local self-government. It earned the title Magna Carta of Local Self-Government in India. Macaulay, Canning, and Bentinck are linked to separate reforms. So option (c) Lord Ripon is the correct answer. Concept Tested: Author of the 1882 local self-government resolution

NDA 2021-II

Q. 6. Which of the following statements about the Indian Councils Act of 1861 is/are correct?

1. It enlarged the Governor General’s Council for the purpose of making laws.

2. The Governor General was not authorised to increase the number of members.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation: The 1861 Act did enlarge the Governor General’s Council for law-making. So statement 1 correctly describes this expansion. The Act actually did authorise the Governor General to add members. So statement 2 wrongly denies him this power. Only statement 1 is correct among the two. Concept Tested: Governor General’s powers under the Indian Councils Act, 1861

NDA 2021-II

Q. 7. Which of the following statements about the Law Commission headed by Lord Macaulay is/are correct?

1. It attempted to codify the laws.

2. It was opposed to uniform system of Courts.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation: Macaulay’s Law Commission did work to codify India’s laws. So statement 1 correctly describes this codification effort. The Commission actually favoured a uniform system of courts. So statement 2 wrongly claims it opposed such uniformity. Only statement 1 is correct among the two. Concept Tested: Aims of Macaulay’s Law Commission

NDA 2020 I&II

Q. 8. In the year 1928, a committee of Congress leaders drafted a Constitution for India. This Committee was headed by

(a) Mahatma Gandhi

(b) T. B. Sapru

(c) Motilal Nehru

(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer: (c) Motilal Nehru

Explanation: Motilal Nehru headed this 1928 committee, producing the Nehru Report. It set out a detailed constitutional scheme for India’s future. Gandhi, Sapru, and Jawaharlal Nehru played other roles in this period. So option (c) Motilal Nehru is the correct answer. Concept Tested: Chairman of the 1928 committee behind the Nehru Report

NDA 2020 I&II

Q. 9. The principle that the framing of the new Constitution for independent India should be primarily (though not solely) the responsibility of Indians themselves, was for the first time conceded in the

(a) Government of India Act, 1935

(b) August Offer of Viceroy Linlithgow

(c) Cripps Proposals

(d) Cabinet Mission

Answer: (b) August Offer of Viceroy Linlithgow

Explanation: The August Offer first formally conceded this Indian-led framing principle. It recognised Indians’ primary role in shaping their own constitution. The 1935 Act, Cripps Proposals, and Cabinet Mission came at later stages. So option (b) August Offer of Viceroy Linlithgow is the correct answer. Concept Tested: First formal concession of Indian-led constitution-making

NDA 2019-II

Q. 10. Who among the following was the first Indian to qualify for the Indian Civil Service?

(a) Satyendranath Tagore

(b) Surendranath Banerjee

(c) R.C. Dutt

(d) Subhas Chandra Bose

Answer: (a) Satyendranath Tagore

Explanation: Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to qualify for the ICS. He passed the examination in 1863, ahead of the other names listed. Banerjee, Dutt, and Bose all qualified in later years. So option (a) Satyendranath Tagore is the correct answer. Concept Tested: First Indian to qualify for the Indian Civil Service

NDA 2019-I

Q. 11. Who was the author of the book ‘History of British India’?

(a) Charles Grant

(b) John Stuart Mill

(c) James Mill

(d) William Jones

Answer: (c) James Mill

Explanation: James Mill wrote the influential History of British India. His work shaped later colonial and utilitarian views of India. Charles Grant, J.S. Mill, and William Jones wrote separate works. So option (c) James Mill is the correct answer. Concept Tested: Author of History of British India

NDA 2019-I

Q. 12. Statement I: The British ruled India through a modern bureaucracy headed by the Indian Civil Service, whose members were recruited through merit based on open competition.

Statement II: The Indian Civil Service was based on the whole hearted participation of Indians.

(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

(b) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I

(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Answer: (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Explanation: The ICS genuinely recruited members through open, merit-based exams. So Statement I correctly describes this bureaucratic structure. Indian participation in the ICS actually remained very limited in practice. So Statement II wrongly claims whole-hearted Indian involvement. Statement I is true, but Statement II is false. Concept Tested: Actual level of Indian participation in the Indian Civil Service

NDA 2018-II

Q. 13. Statement I: The Government of India Act, 1935 introduced Dyarchy at the Centre.

Statement II: The provincial autonomy was granted to the Provinces.

(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Answer: (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation: The 1935 Act’s provisions did include a scheme for central dyarchy. The Act separately granted genuine provincial autonomy as well. These are two distinct provisions, not cause and effect of each other. So both statements are true, but II does not explain I. Concept Tested: Distinguishing central dyarchy from provincial autonomy under the 1935 Act

NDA 2016-II

Q. 14. Which of the following are the features of the ideology of utilitarianism?

1. Utilitarians believed that all value derives from land

2. The most celebrated spokesmen of utilitarianism were Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill

3. Utilitarians were advocates of the idea that India could be ruled through indigenous laws and customs

4. Utilitarians were advocates of the idea of the ‘greatest good for the greatest number of people’

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only

Explanation: Utilitarian value theory centred on utility, not land, as its basis. So statement 1 wrongly attributes a land-based value theory to them. Bentham and John Stuart Mill were indeed its leading spokesmen. Utilitarians actually favoured replacing indigenous law with codified rules. So statement 3 wrongly credits them with ruling through existing customs. The ‘greatest good for the greatest number’ was their defining principle. Only statements 2 and 4 are correct among the four. Concept Tested: Genuine features of utilitarian ideology and colonial governance

NDA 2016-I

Q. 15. Which one among the following Acts for the first time allowed Indians, at least theoretically, entry to higher posts in British Indian administration?

(a) Charter Act, 1813

(b) Charter Act, 1833

(c) Charles Wood’s Education Despatch, 1854

(d) Indian Councils Act, 1861

Answer: (b) Charter Act, 1833

Explanation: The Charter Act of 1833 first opened higher posts to Indians in theory. Its non-discrimination clause underpinned this formal opening. The 1813 Act, Wood’s Despatch, and 1861 Act addressed other matters. So option (b) Charter Act, 1833 is the correct answer. Concept Tested: Act that first opened higher administrative posts to Indians

NDA 2015-II

Q. 16. The Indian States Committee was formed in 1928 under:

(a) The Raja of Junagadh

(b) Ian Copland

(c) Sir Harcourt Butler

(d) Motilal Nehru

Answer: (c) Sir Harcourt Butler

Explanation: Sir Harcourt Butler headed the Indian States Committee of 1928. It examined relations between princely states and the paramount power. The other names listed did not chair this specific committee. So option (c) Sir Harcourt Butler is the correct answer. Concept Tested: Chairman of the 1928 Indian States Committee

NDA 2015-I

Q. 17. While opposing the Public Safety Bill, 1928 who among the following said that it was ‘a direct attack on Indian nationalism, on the Indian National Congress’ and as ‘the Slavery of India, Bill No. 1’?

(a) Motilal Nehru

(b) Lala Lajpat Rai

(c) T Prakasam

(d) Diwan Chaman Lal

Answer: (a) Motilal Nehru

Explanation: Motilal Nehru led the Swaraj Party’s opposition to this bill. He used these exact phrases to condemn its repressive intent. Lajpat Rai, Prakasam, and Chaman Lal also opposed it, but did not coin this phrase. So option (a) Motilal Nehru is the correct answer. Concept Tested: Leader who condemned the Public Safety Bill in these terms

NDA 2014-II

Q. 18. Statement I: The defects of the Regulating Act and the exigencies of British politics necessitated the passing of the Pitt’s India Act.

Statement II: The Pitt’s India Act gave the British Government supreme control over the Company’s affairs and its administration in India.

(a) Both statements individually true, II is correct explanation of I

(b) Both statements individually true, II is not correct explanation of I

(c) I is true, II is false

(d) I is false, II is true

Answer: (a) Both statements individually true, II is correct explanation of I

Explanation: The Regulating Act’s flaws did prompt a stronger follow-up law. Pitt’s India Act did give Britain final control over Company affairs. This new control directly addressed the earlier Act’s shortcomings. So both statements are true, and II explains I. Concept Tested: Link between the Regulating Act’s defects and Pitt’s India Act

NDA 2013-II

Q. 19. Arrange the following events of Indian freedom movement in correct sequence beginning from the earliest:

1. Second Round Table Conference

2. Communal Award

3. Poona Pact

4. Simon Commission

(a) 1-2-3-4

(b) 4-3-2-1

(c) 4-1-2-3

(d) 3-2-1-4

Answer: (c) 4-1-2-3

Explanation: The Simon Commission’s work came first, in the late 1920s. The Second Round Table Conference followed in 1931. The Communal Award came next, in August 1932. The Poona Pact followed soon after, responding to that award. This gives the order Simon Commission, Second RTC, Communal Award, Poona Pact. So option (c), 4-1-2-3, is the correct answer. Concept Tested: Chronology of key constitutional negotiations, 1927-1932

NDA 2013-II

Q. 20. Consider the following statements:

1. Morley-Minto reforms ended the official majority in state legislative assemblies.

2. Despite the Government of India Act, 1909 the non-officials were elected to local bodies indirectly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Morley-Minto reforms did end the official majority in provincial councils. Non-officials were indeed elected only indirectly, through local bodies. Both statements together are accurate here. Concept Tested: Features of representation under the Morley-Minto reforms

NDA 2013-II

Q. 21. “No Indian shall by reason only of his religion, place of birth, descent, colour or any of them be disabled from holding any office or employment under the company.” This was a pledge first given by the

(a) Charter Act of 1813

(b) Charter Act of 1833

(c) Queen’s Proclamation of 1858

(d) Indian Civil Service Act of 1861

Answer: (b) Charter Act of 1833

Explanation: The Charter Act of 1833 first included this non-discrimination pledge. It theoretically opened Company posts to Indians regardless of background. The 1813 Act, 1858 Proclamation, and 1861 Act addressed separate matters. So option (b) Charter Act of 1833 is the correct answer. Concept Tested: Source of the non-discrimination pledge on Company employment

NDA 2012-I

Q. 22. Consider the following statements about Cripps Proposals of 1942:

1. Provision was to be made for participation of Indian States in the Constitution-making body.

2. British Government undertook to accept and implement the Constitution.

3. All provinces of British India were to give an undertaking about the acceptance of the Constitution.

4. In the ongoing World War, no resources of British India would be used.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: Princely states were indeed to nominate members to this body. The British Government did agree to accept the resulting constitution. Provinces unwilling to join could actually opt out, not give acceptance. So statement 3 wrongly reverses this right to abstain. India’s resources genuinely remained available for the ongoing war effort. So statement 4 wrongly claims otherwise. Only statements 1 and 2 are correct among the four. Concept Tested: Accurate provisions of the Cripps Proposals

★ JOVIK Exam Insight: NDA often reverses a real provision, like the right of provinces to opt out becoming a supposed ‘undertaking to accept’. Check the direction of each claim.

NDA 2012-I

Q. 23. Which one among the following statements regarding the Government of India Act, 1935 is not correct?

(a) Provincial Autonomy came into existence

(b) Bicameral legislatures were provided in six provinces

(c) The principles of communal electorates and weightages were further extended

(d) The States were compelled to enter the Federation

Answer: (d) The States were compelled to enter the Federation

Explanation: Princely states could only join the proposed federation voluntarily. So statement (d) wrongly claims they were compelled to accede. Provincial autonomy did genuinely come into force under this Act. Six provinces did receive bicameral legislatures. Communal electorates and weightages were indeed extended further. These other statements about the Act are accurate. Concept Tested: Voluntary nature of princely state accession under the 1935 Act

NDA 2011-I

Q. 24. The Rowlatt Act was passed to:

(a) bring about agrarian reforms

(b) curtail the nationalist and revolutionary activities

(c) have a favourable balance of trade

(d) put Second World War criminals on trial

Answer: (b) curtail the nationalist and revolutionary activities

Explanation: The Rowlatt Act aimed to suppress nationalist and revolutionary activity. It allowed detention and trial without the usual legal safeguards. Agrarian reform, trade balance, and war trials were not its purpose. So option (b) is the correct answer. Concept Tested: Purpose of the Rowlatt Act

NDA 2010-I

Q. 25. Statement I: In order to create linguistic provinces in India, the Congress Party constituted Motilal Nehru Committee in 1928.

Statement II: The Motilal Nehru Committee suggested creation of linguistic provinces in India.

(a) Both statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

(b) Both statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Answer: (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation: The Committee’s real purpose was to draft a full constitutional scheme. So Statement I wrongly narrows its founding purpose to linguistic provinces. The Committee did, among its recommendations, suggest linguistic provinces. So Statement II correctly describes one of its actual proposals. Statement I is false, but Statement II is true. Concept Tested: Actual purpose behind constituting the Motilal Nehru Committee

NDA 2010-I

Q. 26. The Government of India Act, 1935 was based on

(a) the principle of federation and parliamentary system

(b) the principle of secession of the British Indian provinces

(c) acceptance of independence of India

(d) acceptance of the idea of a constituent assembly to draft a constitution

Answer: (a) the principle of federation and parliamentary system

Explanation: The 1935 Act proposed an all-India federation with provincial autonomy. It also followed a broadly parliamentary structure of governance. It did not accept Indian independence or a constituent assembly at this stage. So option (a) is the correct answer. Concept Tested: Core structural principle of the Government of India Act, 1935

NDA 2009-II

Q. 27. What was the effect of the Government of India Act of 1935 on the national movement?

(a) It strengthened the movement

(b) It weakened the movement by satisfying the people

(c) It weakened the movement, because separate electorate for the Muslims and Hindus created dissensions

(d) It weakened the movement, because the Act introduced federal system

Answer: (c) It weakened the movement, because separate electorate for the Muslims and Hindus created dissensions

Explanation: The Act extended separate electorates between religious communities. This deepened communal divisions within the wider national movement. It did not satisfy people or genuinely strengthen unity behind the cause. So option (c) correctly explains the Act’s weakening effect. Concept Tested: Impact of separate electorates under the 1935 Act

NDA 2009-II

Q. 28. The agenda for the Round Table Conferences held in London was to

(a) discuss the report of the Simon Commission

(b) form a Constitution for India

(c) find a solution of the communal problem in India

(d) find a solution for the problems of the ‘depressed classes’ of India

Answer: (b) form a Constitution for India

Explanation: The Round Table Conferences aimed to frame a new constitution for India. Delegates from British India and princely states took part in these talks. The other options describe narrower issues discussed within this process. So option (b) correctly states the conferences’ central agenda. Concept Tested: Central purpose of the Round Table Conferences

NDA 2009-II

Q. 29. Assertion (A): There was a country-wide agitation against the Simon Commission.

Reason (R): The members of the Simon Commission discontinued their work in face of the country-wide agitation.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false.

Explanation: A genuine country-wide protest did greet the Simon Commission. So Assertion A is correctly stated as true. The Commission actually continued its work despite the agitation. It went on to complete and publish its report in 1930. So Reason R wrongly claims the Commission stopped working. A is true, but R is false. Concept Tested: Whether the Simon Commission actually stopped its work

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